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Paul.S
IMO Penalties, corners and freekicks are not open play until someone else has touched the ball. IE: if a corner or freekick is crossed into the box and a header is scored i would consider this open play. However, if beckham bends one directly into the goal from a freekick i would consider that closed play.
Does a goal resulting from a corner count as a goal from open play?
The sky commentator the other night repeatedly said that these were the first goals to go in during open play against Liverpool this season.
Please tell me I'm right!
At what stage does a corner kick stop being a set piece though? After 1 person has touched the ball, 2 people, 3 people?? My definition of a goal from a set piece would be a penalty or a direct free kick.
A set-piece can have multiple phases and if it results in a goal, it cannot be said it came from open play.
For example, imagine a free-kick 25 yards from goal. Gerrard places the ball and Van Der Sar sets his wall. Ref blows his whistle, Alonso plays it across for Riise to hit. The wall rushes out and Riise measures a disguised pass into the path of Torres who tucks it into the corner. This goal is, indirectly, the result of a set-piece.
If, however, Riise ****s the ball into Gary Neville's face instead, the set-piece breaks down which means that when Babel drives the ball home, this goal is the result of open-play. Unless, of course, Riise intentionally played the ball off Dot Cotton's mush. Violently.
Or
When Dida saved Xabi's penalty, the set-piece broke down so when he scored the rebound, Xabi's goal was from open play.
And
In 1982, Johan Cruyff's Ajax goal from that spot-kick one-two with Jesper Olsen was the result of a set-piece.
It's not good because it's rude. It's good because it looks like it's good because it's rude.
correct - I've started a refereeing course and that's something I actually know
Do you have a link that shows the definition?
I just think it is pretty clear that any point where players movements are constrained by the rules is no open play in the common language sense. Whether you define set pieces as part of open play for a specific rule might make sense but in general I think it is very counter intuitive.
"The man who never alters his opinion is like standing water, and breeds reptiles of the mind."
-- William Blake
If, after the ball is in play, the goalkeeper touches the ball a second time (except with his hands) before it has touched another player:
* an indirect free kick is awarded to the opposing team, the kick to be taken from the place where the infringement occurred
If, after the ball is in play, the goalkeeper deliberately handles the ball before it has touched another player:
* a direct free kick is awarded to the opposing team if the infringement occurred outside the goalkeeper’s penalty area, the kick to be taken from the place where the infringement occurred
* an indirect free kick is awarded to the opposing team if the infringement occurred inside the goalkeeper’s penalty area, the kick to be taken from the place where the infringement occurred
[\QUOTE]
I wonder whether a keeper has ever attempted the back pass from a corner that this rule seems worried about?
"The man who never alters his opinion is like standing water, and breeds reptiles of the mind."
-- William Blake
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