I've been having this argument with a mate at work, who has been following Wimbledon since their inception (the original Wimbledon).
If you don't already know, MK Dons recently 'returned' a load of Wimbledon related memorabilia to AFC, including FA Cup related stuff. Essentially this is an admission on their part that they have no Wimbledon heritage (or do they?)
Until now, both clubs - MK Dons, and AFC Wimbledon - have been claiming the cup win of 1988 as their own.
For my money the cup record belongs to MK Dons, as Wimbleon FC became MK Dons.
However he is adamant that the cup record should be with AFC, as that is where all the Wimbledon fans went.
But how can a club win a trophy before it even existed? (AFC were incorporated in 2002)
I've never seen this debate discussed amongst reds before. I know what I think, but I thought perhaps with what is going on here, some might disagree with me, and agree with my Wimbledon mate.
If you don't already know, MK Dons recently 'returned' a load of Wimbledon related memorabilia to AFC, including FA Cup related stuff. Essentially this is an admission on their part that they have no Wimbledon heritage (or do they?)
Until now, both clubs - MK Dons, and AFC Wimbledon - have been claiming the cup win of 1988 as their own.
For my money the cup record belongs to MK Dons, as Wimbleon FC became MK Dons.
However he is adamant that the cup record should be with AFC, as that is where all the Wimbledon fans went.
But how can a club win a trophy before it even existed? (AFC were incorporated in 2002)
I've never seen this debate discussed amongst reds before. I know what I think, but I thought perhaps with what is going on here, some might disagree with me, and agree with my Wimbledon mate.




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